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Originally Posted by solifide  I need help understanding the passage in bold and the passage in italics. In bold, it is quite obvious that sin was present before the law was given to Moses, but Paul says that the sin was not imputed on the sinner if there is no law. What is Paul saying here? Also, in italics, what does it mean to sin "like the transgression of Adam?" |
The section about sinning in the manner of Adam points to the federal nature of Adam's standing in the covenant of works. He represented all of mankind in that covenant. We're born in sin, not by anything we have done personally, but as a result of the sin of our first covenant head, Adam. His sin was imputed to us, and we sinned in him by our union to him as our head, and that sin is passed onto us by ordinary generation.
WSC 1:16 The covenant being made with Adam, not only for himself, but for his posterity; all mankind, descending from him by ordinary generation, sinned in him, and fell with him, in his first transgression.
In Romans 5, Paul goes on to contrast Adam as our first covenant head with Christ our new head. Like original sin, our salvation isn't based upon our works, but upon the works of the last Adam, Jesus Christ; as our covenant head, His righteousness is imputed to us and we're therefore counted righteous in Christ by grace through faith in the person and work of our Savior.