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Old 01-31-2008, 01:25 PM
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Contra_Mundum Contra_Mundum is offline.
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When we look at worship in the OT, its pretty clear that 'dance' (and how shall we define this practice?) had no place. It simply was no part of liturgy. David's personal putting off of inhibition in celebration (2 Sam 6:14) was no part of his tabernacle devotion.

So, we really cannot take Ps. 150 and say that just because something there can be used to praise the Lord legitimately, that therefore it is automatically acceptable in any circumstance we conceive. I would say that Ps. 150 actually blends aspects taken from Israel's corporate worship, as well as lively celebration of all kinds, and teaches us an exuberant life of praise. But we need more the Psalm to help us discriminate what belongs where.
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