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JBaldwin · #23 (**permalink**) 01-22-2008, 10:31 AM

[quote=Stephen;347365]

Quote:

Originally Posted by JBaldwin

As I understand the Book of Church order for the PCA, for those individuals desiring to join the church as a communing member, the church recognizes immersion of an individual as long as it was done under certain conditions (I won't go into these, since they are not relevant to the discussion), otherwise as a practice, the PCA baptizes via sprinkling or pouring, whether it is of an individual joining the church being baptized for the first time or of an infant.

1. So my first question to you PCA pastors and scholars, is this the case or am I mistaken in my understanding of the BCO? Please do not bring the westminster confession into this conversation. I am speaking strictly of the BCO.

In a recent online discussion I have been having, more than one person has insisted that I am misunderstanding the BCO. Even though, I know there have been some excpetions, I simply can't find anywhere in the BCO that instructs a pastor to immerse if someone wants it. I have been told that as a practice PCA pastors both perform sprinkling/pouring and immersion.

2. If the answer to my first question is "yes, I am reading the BCO correctly," then would it be right for me to argue that the PCA is does not immerse as a general rule?

For further explanation: The argument I am encountering is that the PCA recognizes immersion for one joining the church as valid, so therefore it is ok for a pastor to go ahead and immerse someone if they simply can't accept sprinkling or pouring as a valid form of baptism?

I've been in the PCA for over 20 years, and I was always led to believe that we are paedo baptists who perform sprinkling and pouring as a mode of baptism. Now all of a sudden, something I thought was settled is being questioned. Am I off base?

3. My third question is for anyone, PCA or not. In the course of the conversation someone referred to immersing an infant as a possible form of baptism. I suppose theoretically that is possible, but has anyone ever heard of immersing an infant? Wouldn't that be contrary to the theology that goes along with infant baptism?

I know I have probably opened up a can of worms with these questions, but I am not trying to cause a controversy. I just want a straight answer to some questions that have confused me.

Thanks in advance for all the great answers I'm sure you fine people will give me.

Joy

Quote:

I am not sure what reference in the BoCO you were refering to but I am not aware that it makes reference to immersion, but it does refer to sprinkling or washing with water (56-4 d). There are those occasions when someone was baptized as an infant and wants to be immersed because they felt their baptism was not valid, but the PCA does not encourage this. I will never rebaptize someone and no PCA minister would. If someone has never been baptized and requests immersion, I will not encourage it, but some may. The PCA as a general rule does not practice immersion.

To clarify, the BCO never mentions the word "immersion" to my knowledge. I hope I did not mislead in my statement. It only recognizes that if a person has been baptized that they need not be baptized again.

Quote:

Many Reformed scholars make the case, and I would agree with it, that baptism is best pictured by pouring or sprinkling because it is a sign of the pouring out of the Spirit or the sprinkling of the heart.

This is my belief as well. I was startled to hear two or three (who should know) say otherwise which is what generated my question in the first place.

I wonder sometimes, if there really is a clear understanding in some PCA circles of why we sprinkle. i.e. this sign of baptism is a picture of the "sprinkling or pouring of the Spirit or the sprinkling of the heart". In my part of the country (the south), so many members of the PCA have come from Baptist backgrounds and the issue of mode of baptism is not always explained clearly.

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Stephen (01-23-2008)