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Fair question. I would say that the it is difficult to argue one way or the other as to whether they were received. However, the fact that an Alexandrian text-type exists surely proves that the Alexandrian text-type itself was used in Alexandria. There are a lot more than one Alexandrian manuscript. Plus, there are no Byzantine texts from Alexandria! Therefore, the Byzantine text-type was not received in all branches of the church, at least in the fourth century. I'm sure that this was because the Byzantine texts were not distributed. So, I could turn the question around and say this: what reception in the third and fourth centuries did the Byzantine text-form have in the West and in Alexandria? Is there any evidence at all of the Byzantine text being received in all branches of the church at that time?
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