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Originally Posted by larryjf I think that Jesus weeping is because of the serious consequences that sin has brought on God's creation. The wages of sin is death, and here Christ is at the tomb, confronted with the reason why He must go to the cross.
Notice also that the Greek word underlying "wept" in verse 35 is different from the word used in verse 33 when they are weeping for the dead. Verse 35 is "dakruo", not "klaio." So it's more directly that Jesus "shed tears" than that He "wept" in the same sense of verse 33. |
I have been told that the language lends itself more to anger than sadness.