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Old 12-18-2007, 08:34 PM
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Contra_Mundum Contra_Mundum is offline.
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Originally Posted by RRHeustisJr View Post
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Originally Posted by Contra_Mundum View Post

How about Gal 3:28?

"There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male nor female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus."
Exactly.

But, does this mean that females were not part of the Covenant in the Old, but now they are, according to Paedobaptist theology? If Galatians 3:28 is used to bolster Paedobaptism, then are we to believe that females were treated just like the Greek in the Old, which is why females (and Greeks) were not circumcised?
No, we would say that they were not fully incorporated in the external rites. We would say that they were fully incorporated in the substance of the covenant (since we believe it was part of the covenant of grace, and not that it was two covenants--one inward by faith, another outward and purely of the flesh); but they were not included in all elements of the administration. They were not circumcised, they were not commanded to the feasts. On the other hand, she could be a Nazarite, or a singer (Ex. 2:65, Neh. 7:67), etc.
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