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Old 12-06-2007, 10:18 AM
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This has been a very good discussion to read thus far.

As a general thought to throw out there, while I do know that some of the English Puritans did in fact believe in prophecy in a special revelation type of way, it is also true that the word was likewise used to sometimes refer to preaching, and the use thereof by the Spirit as a means of grace to convict the hearts and minds of believers and unbelievers alike, and bless the former. Could that sense of the word "prophecy" (preaching) have anything relevant to contribute to the current issue, including Rutherford's own use of the word, as well as the Divines' consensus on the issue in WCF 1?

Rev. Winzer, I found your initial post particularly helpful, where you talked about the different type of prophecy to which Rutherford referred, distinct from special revelation per se. Would you mind elaborating on just what he (and others) would have understood the nature of that to be. I think Wayne's recent post commenting on the article's characterization of the different "types" of supposed prophecies was likewise helpful in getting at some of that meaning. Would you characterize Rutherford's "prophecy" to fall into #2 (speaking on personal assurance of salvation; and also on illumination regarding Scripture's inspiration and content, as per the last sentence of WCF 1.5), or even one of those categories at all?
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Christopher Blum
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Currently attending Trinity Presbyterian Church of Northern Kentucky (PCA) in Burlington, KY

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