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No.
I think it's probably a misnomer to assume that quoting a Confession and having confidence in its Biblical summary is equivalent to viewing it as infallible. Let me give an illustration.
Assume two men read John 3:16 and John 6.
The first man says: "See! God loves the world. The Scriptures don't lie. This means that every single person has an opportunity to believe the Gospel. Dave Hunt used this Scripture convincingly to demonstrate that James White is all wet!"
The second man replies: "I. All those whom God hath predestinated unto life, and those only, He is pleased, in His appointed time, effectually to call,1 by His Word and Spirit,2 out of that state of sin and death, in which they are by nature to grace and salvation, by Jesus Christ;3 enlightening their minds spiritually and savingly to understand the things of God,4 taking away their heart of stone, and giving unto them an heart of flesh;5 renewing their wills, and, by His almighty power, determining them to that which is good,6 and effectually drawing them to Jesus Christ:7 yet so, as they come most freely, being made willing by His grace.8"
The question for you is this:
Whose interpretation was infallible?
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