| Works within the Mosaic Covenant?
In an article by R. Scott Clark, writing on Covenant Theology, he states this: Quote:
In reaction to Murray and Shepherd, Meredith Kline of Westminster Seminary in California has returned to the classic correlation between the Law and Gospel dichotomy and the dichotomy between the covenant of works and grace. To answer the liberals and dispensationalists, he has argued that there is one covenant of grace in the history of salvation, but that the Mosaic covenant, though gracious with respect to justification, had a works element relative to Israel's tenure in Canaan. In this way, the Mosaic theocracy becomes a re-publication of the covenant of works and a foreshadowing of Christ, the obedient 2nd Adam. Though it appears novel in our time, this view is quite traditional. His view that the Mosaic Covenant was a temporary, legal, superimposition upon the covenant of grace, though hinted at in the earlier tradition, is an development of the earlier theology.
| Now my question is based upon this particular statement: Quote: |
the Mosaic covenant, though gracious with respect to justification, had a works element relative to Israel's tenure in Canaan.
| Does this mean that the Covenant of Works has been partially re-instituted within the Mosaic Covenant?
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Andrew Cunningham
Reno, NV(Soon to ship out to Camp Pendleton...USMC)
Attending:Community Bible Church (Reformed-ish, Non-denom)
"by His scourging we are healed" Isaiah 53:5
"Wash me thoroughly from my iniquity and cleanse me from my sin" Psalm 51:2 |