If a seceeded govt is fighting against a foreign power, what did it seceed form, and what role does this - lets call it federal govt, play in the conflict?

I ask this because while I think I agree with your logic, one point of qualification I would make is that if the states were previously legitimately under the authority of a federal power, it does not seem obvious to me that the seceeding govt would have legitimate authority over its citizens as opposed to the federal government. Or, to put it in other words, I am not sure Romans 13 would apply to mandate obedience to the seceeding government as opposed to the federal one.

Wouldn't it come down, in the end, to a discussion on the justness and biblical legitimacy of the seceession?

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Mark Li
International University Church
New South Wales, Australia