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Old 08-17-2007, 08:38 PM
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Hello Rich,

Thank you for the backgound information.



I am unfamilar with the paper, and I would say Clark's answer is a little vague. Aristotle's logic was not strictly syllogistic. Aristotle used all of the argument forms I mentioned in my previous post. If Clark meant what you think he meant, then that is a shame. It will be another mark against Scripturalism.

Sincerely,

Brian
I would be interested in looking into this more. As I understand Clark, he would agree with Brian's understanding about what is known as traditional logic (deductive in nature) and not narrowly Aristotelian.
If you go to http://itunes.rts.edu and then click to launch iTunes, you'll be taken to the RTS store inside of iTunes where you can download tons of audio files for free. Under Theology you'll find Christian Apologetics. I think his statements are in lesson 16. He's definitely talking about Clark in that lecture. I'm not saying you have to agree with Frame but rather than third hand reporting you might as well listen to what Frame says.
This is very subjective, Rich, but I listened to that lecture too, and I've also listened to some of Clark's lectures. I have a suspicion that he was being a bit facetious on the question. I know Frame remembers it as being a serious answser, but listening to Clark, he often says something outlandish and you can almost hear a wink.
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