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A. Where has Rome infallibly defined and exegeted any text of Scripture? This would include those related to Petrine primacy.
B. Where and how did Ancient Church define Petrine primacy? There are multiple views in the Fathers on this subject. Which is definitive for the others?
C. Does Rome today credobaptize by immersion by thrice dipping?
D. What about the Marian dogmas? Please explain the Gelasian Decree.
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J. B. Atken
John Knox PCA
Layman, M.A. student at Louisiana College
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