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bookslover · #2 (**permalink**) 07-08-2007, 09:52 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by x.spasitel

The one problem, of course, is that every commentary I looked it commented on the verses the way it is traditionally believed. So I find myself opposed to centuries of worthy men much more intelligent than I.

The fact that none of the commentaries you've consulted agrees with you doesn't necessarily mean that you're wrong. It could be that you just need to see more commentaries. Personally, I think you're interpretation works just as well as the traditional view.

What we don't know, of course, is why the ancients put that "selah" where they did. The best guess is that the term "selah" has something to do with music, although we have no idea what. If that's true, then possibly there was a change in the music at that point, or maybe a break in the music. We just don't know. If it is a music term, then that could imply that the "selah" has nothing to do with the interpretation of the words, but merely serves as a guide for the music.

But, again, who knows?

Calvin notes that verse 7 (God shall bless us; let all the ends of the earth fear Him.) is also an allusion to the Aaronic blessing, thus forming an inclusio with the first verse.

So, perhaps Psalm 67 is an expansion of, or a commentary on, the Aaronic blessing.

Just my 83 cents.