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Originally Posted by Romans922 So you are saying that it is saying (let me use my marriage as an example so I can understand it, and I'll use myself as the bad person here) that if I committed adultery then my wife can sue out a divorce (meaning get a divorce) and then she can marry again. That is because the divorce has been undergone (that is it breaks the marriage as if it hadn't happened) and so she can marry again. Is this correct? | Yes, she is free to marry again, just the same as if you had died. It's not adultery for her to remarry because the bond is completely severed upon completion of the divorce. Rich may have said it better.
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Patrick
OPC
MDiv, RTS Jackson. "He does well, that discourses of Christ; but he does infinitely better, that by experimental knowledge, feeds and lives on Christ." Thomas Brooks. |