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Old 06-20-2007, 10:21 PM
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Romans922 Romans922 is offline.
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So you are saying that it is saying (let me use my marriage as an example so I can understand it, and I'll use myself as the bad person here) that if I committed adultery then my wife can sue out a divorce (meaning get a divorce) and then she can marry again. That is because the divorce has been undergone (that is it breaks the marriage as if it hadn't happened) and so she can marry again. Is this correct?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Puritan Sailor View Post
As if they were dead, refers to the status of the marriage bond, not necessarily your personal feelings about the person. Death is the ordinary end of marriage. In the case of adultery, if the innocent party sues out a divorce, she/he has every right to pursue it, as if that person were dead, in other words, they have legitimate grounds to sever the marriage bond completely and finally just as if the person had died. Hope that helps.
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