Greetings:

The Bible alone is the infallible means of interpreting the Scriptures is a doctrine I am most committed to in my beliefs. I have been troubled recently in a private conversation concerning the nature of predictive prophecy.

I believe that Matthew 24 is describing, in part, the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. Also, in Daniel 7:19ff we understand that the Roman Empire is being discussed, but we have no direct Scriptural evidence that proves that such is the case. In other words: I cannot cross-reference a passage in Scrpture that "Matt. 24 is talking about 70 AD" or "Daniel 7:19 is referring to the Roman Empire."

We get these interpretations from outside of Scripture: i.e. Josephus, or a history book of some kind.

Is Sola Scriptura applied in a different way when it comes to predictive prophecy?

Grace,

-CH

__________________
In Essentials Unity, in non-Essentials Liberty, in all things Charity.

Robert Paul Wieland
Springs Reformed Presbyterian Church
Colorado Springs, CO RPCNA
Student at Reformed Presbyterian Theological Seminary, Pittsburgh PA
B.B. Warfield's definition of Theological Students: "Angels preparing to sound the Trumpets."
I pity the fool who acts like there is no God.