Daniel,
Perhaps to bring us even closer into alignment (if possible?):

What do you make of the fact that Rom. in 3:1 Paul uses the noun form, rather than the verb? Elsewhere he indicates that real profitting requires something (whether law-keeping, faith, abandoning ritual, etc.). The use of the noun form in 3:1 bespeaks an objective quality, a value to the nationality, to the sign, irrespective of the individual's appreciation.

As I read it, what Paul seems to be saying is that there is genuine value to being an OT Jew, "much in every way," even when it wasn't made proper use of. There is true value there, to and profit made from it. But how is it to be profitted, apart from appreciation? Apart from the subjective imputation of value? Like the check: the check is real; "pay to the order of" says name-of, that's real; funds are available, real; etc. This, I think, lines up with what you alluded to above, the fact that God's faithfulness is real.

So, perhaps I'm focusing on the subjective profit/value to the person involved, and you simply wanting enough acknowlegement of the objective value aspect.

At this point, while I surely believe that the Holy Ghost "really exhibits," his grace to his elect--the ones unto whom "that grace belongeth"--in the "right use of this ordinance," I hesitate to acknowledge that the unregenerate elect actually profit from the grace as "conferred" until "his appointed time" (WCF 28.6). And I truly shy away from affirming that the reprobate (unto whom that grace does NOT belong) EVER profit, except maybe we can say in the "exhibition".

__________________
Rev. Bruce G. Buchanan
ChainOLakes Presbyterian Church, CentralLake, MI


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