I only got half way through this thread, but here's something I noticed. One of the arguements is that the text copied from was supposedly destroyed once a new one was made. and that the reason the Alexandrian texts exist is because they were ignored and not copied.
So why do we have any of these manuscripts? Shouldn't they all have been destroyed?
Someone made the arguement that that was a Jewish practice to destroy the original once a copy was made. I don't see that a Jewish practice would/could be imposed on Gentile Christians(it was stopped before reguarding circumcision).
Maybe I'm way off base. I know I'm in over my head
on this discussion. Just a thought, not claiming its a good one.
shelly