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Old 05-05-2007, 07:58 AM
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What about Mark 16:9-20 ?

Perhaps there is already a robust thread on this...if so, feel free to point me to it rather than begin another thread.

1. When did this passage inserted into printed editions of the Bible? Or has it always been there and scholars realized it was not in the earliest/most reliable manuscripts?

2. More importantly, how does the situation with this passage relate to how we know what is Holy Scripture (the canon) and what is not? In this case, it seems a bit different because the book of Mark is in the canon...in other words it is not like I and II Macabees which is all apocryphal.
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