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Originally Posted by CarolinaCalvinist  This seems important. How would anyone know with certainty that man has any a priori knowledge of God without the Scriptures to prove it? He would have to do some kind of empirical study and 1) since many would claim not to believe in God and 2) we would not be able to survey every single individual we wouldn't be able to prove it. Therefore the Scriptures justify what we know about humans' a priori knowledge as it concerns God, do they not? |
Every predication of man is a claim to know, and that knowledge requires pre-conditions. These pre-conditions are the a priori forms. Hence, before Scripture is brought into the picture a priori forms are established. Scripture addresses men on the basis that men can understand what Scripture teaches.