Originally Posted by CarolinaCalvinist

This seems important. How would anyone know with certainty that man has any a priori knowledge of God without the Scriptures to prove it? He would have to do some kind of empirical study and 1) since many would claim not to believe in God and 2) we would not be able to survey every single individual we wouldn't be able to prove it. Therefore the Scriptures justify what we know about humans' a priori knowledge as it concerns God, do they not?