I'm curious as to some of your thoughts on the language of Isaiah 53. Much of it was written in past tense, but then there are some key parts that are written in future tense.

Obviously when Isaiah wrote this the Cross was still over 700 years away. I understand it was a Messianic prophetic passage. I'm just curious as to why you think Isaiah switched back and forth from past and future tense almost interchangeably throughout the passage.

Was it simply to show that eternally in the mind of God redemption was decreed, but yet had to be fulfilled in time? Which kind of shoots in the foot the dispensational thinking that the Cross was a Plan B, but that's a whole other .

Thoughts?

__________________
Ryan Barnhart - Pastor of OGBC
Husband to a beautiful wife, Father to two beautiful girls
"But by the grace of God I am what I am." I Corinthians 15:10

"I confess to you, that if I can but live and die serving the Lord Jesus, it will make no difference to me whether I am eaten by Cannibals or by worms. And in the Great Day my Resurrection body will rise as fair as yours in the likeness of our risen Redeemer." - John Paton