Quote:
Originally posted by mgeoffriau
Well, I asked that question because it would seem that purpose of specifying Joseph's abstinance prior to Jesus' birth would be to establish Mary's virginity as it pertains to Jesus' birth -- and to assume that this continued after Jesus was born would stretch the intent of the language, it would seem to me.
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But can you see that an assumption is being made in the opposite direction, which the Scriptures likewise provide no warrant for? Nowhere do the Scriptures assume that this was an ordinary marriage. Having satisfactorily proved that point from Matt. 1:25, we have no basis for assuming that Joseph and Mary ever had sexual relations.