Two things come to mind.

1. This demonstrates that Paul was quoting Psalm 14, and not Psalm 53; because although those passages read identically in the Masoretic text (and our English Bibles), they do not read identically in the Septuagint. Paul goes with the Septuagint reading of Psalm 14:1-3, not the Septuagint reading of Psalm 53:1-3.

2. This further demonstrates the apostle's (or apostles') reliance upon the Septuagint as a translation, showing the validity of the use of translations of the Bible, and contributing to my larger argument for exclusive psalmody with regard to the terms in Ephesians 5:19 and Colossians 3:16 (supporting the presumption of a Septuagintal reference to those terms). But that's an argument for another thread and forum.

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Sean P.M. McDonald
Communicant Member of Springs Reformed Church (RPCNA), Colorado Springs, CO
Infantryman, 10th Mountain Division, Fort Drum, NY (Deployed to Iraq)
Engaged to Laura A. Doman of Grand Rapids, MI
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"Lex praescribit, evangelium inscribit." (The law prescribes, the gospel inscribes.)