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Old 07-01-2006, 11:44 AM
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Pilgrim Pilgrim is offline.
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Quote:
Originally posted by street preacher
Why do the newer translations in Isaiah 14 call Lucifer the morning star or day star? That is blasphamous.
Because that is the literal translation of the passage, and it is even the margin in the KJV. The term lucifer comes from the Vulgate. See here and here. The NKJV margin says "Lit. Day Star".

The note here at the Spirit of the Reformation Study Bible says that "The longstanding interpretation that this passage refers to the fall of Satan is incorrect. The context clearly indicates that Isaiah was speaking of the king of Assyria. Compare the similar description of the king of Tyre in Ezekiel 28."

But I guess if it says Lucifer in the KJV it HAS to be correct, right? Correct the Hebrew with the English?

[Edited on 7-1-2006 by Pilgrim]
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