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I would definitely answer yes, largely because if we do not, the command in Scripture to obey the magistrate would be meaningless. I believe that the only way we are justified in disobeying the magistrate is if their instructions would force us to sin. But if one adds that we do not even have to obey them when their restrictions go further than God's (albeit without going against them), when would obeying them apply? In other words, if the answer to your question was no, we would never have to look to the magistrate for any restriction on our actions, only look to God's Law and do anything that it allows, disregarding anything the magistrate says, hence rendering the command to obey the law of the land meaningless.
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